In the key text of the epistle to the Romans (Rom. 1:16, 17) it is implied that all men are in need of the salvation, and of that faith-righteousness which is revealed in the gospel. The apostle takes time and space to show that this is so. In 1:18-32 he turns the light on the spiritual ruin and the condemnation of the world in general. In chapter two he takes up the case of those who boasted themselves of a superior light and privilege (which meant most especially the Jews) and shows how they also have sinned against their light, and are subject, therefore, to the same just sentence of God's judgment--the sentence unto condemnation. This has been brought out in previous lessons.

      Now open your book at Romans 3:9-20.^*

      Here he sums up the case of both Jew and Gentile. "We" (that is, the Jews) are no better than the Gentiles. All alike are under sin. (Compare 3:23, 24--"for there is no distinction; for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God.") The quotations that follow (vs. 10-18) are gathered from various parts of the Old Testament scriptures--five from Psalms, one (or perhaps two) from Isaiah. (See references in Revised Version margin.) They all speak of universal sinfulness and corruption. The picture is terrible; but it is indisputable. All the items specified may not apply in any one case; but all are true when all is summed up. Such is lost humanity. Note especially the sinful rise of the organs of speech: "throat," "tongue," "lips," "mouth" (vs. 13, 14). "The law" (that is the O. T. scripture generally) says these things; and of course they refer first of all to them "who are under the law," the people of Israel. And if such is their condition, then is the rest of the world also ruined and condemned. For the Gentiles were admittedly inferior to the Jews: and what was said to the Jews, applied even more to Gentiles. The Jews' works of law could not justify them; for the very law under which they worked was that which exposed their sins and condemned them. (v. 20.) And so every month is shut, and all the world stands guilty and convicted before God.

      Here suddenly we step out of the darkness of ruin and despair into the light of hope and wondrous salvation--the glorious light of the gospel, shining in the face of Christ:

      But now apart front the law a righteousness of God hath been manifested, being witnessed by the law and the prophets; even the [13] righteousness of God through faith in Jesus Christ unto all them that believe." (Rom. 3:21, 22.)

      When Paul says "But now" it always means a complete change and reversal of the situation. (Comp. 6:22; 7:6.) What is the fact which turns the night to day? "A righteousness of God has now been manifested"; namely "the righteousness of God which is through faith in Jesus Christ"; and which is bestowed "unto all them that believe." This is the special revelation brought to us in the gospel, for in it "is revealed a righteousness of God from faith unto faith." (Rom. 1:16, 17.) This "righteousness" is now and here "manifested" and "revealed."

      He tells us three things about it: (1) that it is "apart from the law"--i. e. has no relation to the law or law-keeping; (2) that it is witnessed by the law and the prophets." It is by no means a novelty: for from of old it had been "promised afore through his prophets in the holy scriptures" (Rom. 1:2). And (3) it is by faith in Jesus Christ, to everyone that believes. (Compare this with Philippians 3:9.)

      But where does the law and the prophets bear witness to such a "righteousness" as this? Ans.--In every promise and prophecy concerning Christ; in all the types; especially in the sacrifices of the Old Testament; sometimes also by direct mention, as in Jer. 23:5, 6; Isa. 54:17; 61:10.

      Next he explains what this "righteousness" really is to us. It consists (he says) in our "being justified freely by his grace, through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus." (Rom. 3:24.) Here we find several important words. They are (1) "justified"; (2) "freely"; (3) "grace"; (4) "redemption." We shall not be able to understand the apostle's teaching unless we get the meaning of these words.

      1. The word "justify" never means to "make righteous"; nor does it mean "to pardon." It is really a legal term. It means always to absolve from the charge of guilt, "to pronounce righteous." We read of God's being justified (that is, shown or declared to be righteous) in all His ways and judgments. (Rom. 3:4.) In Rom. 2:13, "the doers of the law [if there had been any such] shall be justified," because such would be declared righteous, or (as in R. V. margin) "accounted righteous." Abraham was justified, not by works, but by faith, because he "believed God and it was reckoned unto him for righteousness"; and so are the saved under the gospel said to be "justified by faith." We shall find this word frequently; and, as applied to us, it means that by God's own judicial sentence we are declared righteous--that is in so far as any guilt or charges against us are concerned. It is the exact opposite of condemnation. The righteous life and character grows out of this state of perfect acceptance with God, but that is not the point as yet: here he speaks of God's verdict by which we are pronounced "righteous," that is, clean and clear of guilt.

      2. "Freely." This means "without charge," "free of cost," for no consideration or compensation given by us-simply "free gratis, " or "gratuitous." The term in the Greek is derived from the word "gift." Our justification is a free gift from God. [14]

      3. "Grace" Grace is always set in direct contrast to merit and desert, meritorious works, or reward for law-keeping, or worthiness or anything on man's part by which he might have earned or deserved the gift he received by grace, or might In any wise have compensated for it. Note the contrasts in Rom. 4:4, 5; 11:6; Eph. 2:8, 9; Tit. 3:5; 2 Tim. 1:9.

      4. This, through the "redemption" that is in Christ Jesus. The term redemption always involves a price paid for the retrieving of something which once belonged to us, and was lost. The redemption-price Christ paid for us was His own blood. "In whom we have our redemption through his blood, the forgiveness of our sins, according to the riches of his grace." (Eph. 1:7.)

      We may wonder here how God can so justify a sinner. He that justifieth the wicked, and he that condemneth the righteous, both of them alike are an abomination to Jehovah." (Prov. 17:15.) How then can God "justify the ungodly"? (Rom. 4:5.) The answer lies in this redemption wrought by Christ, His sacrificial death for us; by which it became possible for God Himself to be "just and the justifier of him that hath faith in Jesus." (Rom. 3:26.)

      Here let us review our lesson. It has brought us into the very heart of the gospel. From this vantage-point we can look backward, and forward to Rom. 5:1.

      Paul in Romans 3:22 speaks of the "righteousness of God through faith in Christ Jesus." The expression in verse 24 that we are "justified freely by his grace" explains this. For to be "justified" is to be "accounted righteous." A justified man is one whom God pronounces righteous, and who therefore stands on the ground of righteousness before God. If the man by life-long perfect obedience had merited that standing (which no man ever did) his righteousness would be a righteousness of his own (See Rom. 2:13 and Phil. 3:9)--the reward of which would be due him as a matter of debt, got as of grace (Rom. 4:4; comp. 10:5). But if, though a sinful man, he was forgiven and pronounced righteous because of his faith in Jesus Christ, then the righteousness he has is from God, and is not his own. It is a gift freely bestowed upon him (Rom. 5:17) and it is by grace, that is to say, wholly unmerited. (For grace has to do only with the sinful and unworthy, never with people who, either wholly or in part, deserve the gift of God.) Therefore that "righteousness of God by faith" is the "being justified freely, by his grace, through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus." The terms here used have been explained above. Let us note again and more especially this last clause:

      "Through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus."

      This is the ground on which God effected this marvellous justification. Upon this "redemption" depends God's moral right to justify the sinner. For God must do all things rightly and justly. However great His love for man, He can do nothing in an unrighteous, arbitrary, unprincipled fashion. Hence the necessity of redemption.

      Now when you speak of redemption there is always a price [15] involved. When you redeem anything you must pay the dues on it. So here also: the redemption that comes to us so freely cost God a price incalculable and incomprehensible--the greatest price He ever paid out for anything, and in the nature of things the greatest price that could ever be paid for anything. What is that price? The blood of His own, His only begotten, beloved Son--"in whom we have our redemption through his blood, the forgiveness of our trespasses, according to the riches of his grace." (Eph. 1:7.)

      The next two verses (Rom. 3:25, 26) further take up this solemn matter. Here we learn:

      1. That God set forth (exhibited openly) His Son "to be a propitiation, through faith, in his blood. A "propitiation" is an atoning sacrifice, a sin-sacrifice. The words "in his blood" can grammatically be connected either with "set forth" (then it would mean that God set Him forth in His blood to be a propitiation); or with "by faith" (in which case the thought would be that He becomes a propitiation to those who have faith in His blood.) The former connection is surely the correct one. In, His blood (that is in the shedding of His blood) God set His Son forth as a propitiation. But it is by faith in Him that this propitiation (sin-sacrifice) becomes effective to every one of us.

      2 God did this in order to show His uprightness in the matter of passing over sins done aforetime--that is, in former ages. That was a serious point--almost a reflection on the character of God. All His saints of former days--Abraham, for example, Isaac, Jacob, Moses, David, Samuel, and the prophets, were sinners. Yet God accepted them and dealt With them (and many others) as though they had not sinned. (Ps. 32:1, 2; 51:7.) How could He do that? The angels looked on and wondered. Satan himself must have been astonished--and perhaps ready to blaspheme. Is there unrighteousness with God? But when His Son was set forth in His blood as God's own propitiatory Sacrifice, brought by Himself, the matter was cleared up for ever. (Heb. 9:15 also refers to this aspect of the death of Christ.)

      3. Not only with reference to "the passing over of sins done aforetime in the forbearance of God" did the death of God's beloved Son demonstrate God's integrity, but also "in this present season"--during which He deals with sinners in pure grace, justifying freely all who believe.

      4. All this was in order that God might Himself be just while justifying them that have faith in Jesus.

      "Where is boasting then? It is excluded. This is aimed specially at the Jew, the inveterate boaster (Rom. 2:17-19). But this way of salvation (by faith, not by works) leaves him no ground to boast on. Since he, like all others is a sinner (3:22b, 23) and is saved by pure mercy and grace on the ground of faith--and that exactly like all others, exactly like the Gentiles--he has no room for glorying. Compare Eph. 2:8, 9. That the Gentiles have no ground of boasting needed no argument. And since God is one and God over all alike. He justifies all alike (Rom. 10:12) on the same plane--namely "by faith, apart from works of law" (3:28, marg.; 29, 30.) [16]

      One more word concludes the chapter. The charge might have been brought against Paul (and no doubt, was) that by his doctrine of faith he made the Law vain and void. To this charge Paul enters a fervent denial. ("God forbid" in the Greek; "May it not be!" or "Perish the thought!") So far from making it of none effect, he establishes the Law. In contradiction to Paul's clear and emphatic teaching elsewhere (Rom. 6:14; 7:1, 6; 2 Cor. 3; Gal. 3:10; 4:21-23) some have tried to prove by this that the Law is binding today upon all, and that Christians are under the Law--an idea utterly opposed to, and subversive of the whole principle of the gospel. But if in answer to the demand of the Law, God gave His Son to pay the penalty of its violation by man's sin--certainly the claim of the Law was established and not made void. Moreover in regard to every individual Paul's teaching establishes the claim and the testimony of the Law--for the Law convicted all men as sinners (Rom. 3:19, 20) and at the same time it witnessed to the glorious gospel which Paul preached (3:21). This is the true place and function of the Law; and thus it became "our tutor to bring us unto Christ, that we might be justified by faith. But now that faith is come we are no longer under a tutor." (Gal. 3:24, 25.)

      To whom does the sum-up in 3:9-20 apply--to Gentiles only? to Jews only? or to all men? What great new revelation comes in, at 3:21, 22? What three things does he tell its about "the righteousness of God?" What does "justify" mean? What is meant by "freely"? What is "grace"? What is the meaning of "redemption"? How can God be just and yet justify the sinner? If a man had attained to righteousness by his own work and merit, what sort of righteousness would he have? (Phil. 3:9.) But on what principle are we justified? (Rom. 3:21.) What does "redemption" always involve? What was the redemption price God paid for us? How did God demonstrate His uprightness and integrity in the matter of forgiving sins in times past and in the present time? Why was all this great Sacrifice made? How is boasting excluded? How did Paul "establish the law"? [17]

[LOR2 13-17]