Does God Hear Sinners

By Lila Newsom

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     All of my life I have been taught that the answer to the above question is an unequivocal "No!" My Bible teachers quoted John 9:31 so decisively that I never questioned the clear teaching of that verse: "Now we know that God heareth not sinners; but if any man be a worshiper of God, and doeth his will, him he heareth."

     In fact, I heard this verse quoted out of context so frequently and applied (I now think mis-applied) to all prayers of all persons not members of the Church of Christ, that only recently in personal study did it suddenly dawn upon me that this verse is a woefully inadequate proof for such a contention.

     My present further examination of scriptural teaching concerning whom God will hear in prayer was prompted by comments made recently by a brother in Christ. He stated that when visiting a "denominational" meeting, or in attending a public gathering in which one who was not a member of the Church of Christ led a prayer, he would bow his head but totally disregard the thoughts of the prayer leader and offer instead his own prayer. He assumed that God would not listen to a non-member, so why should he do so?

     Dear reader, will you examine with me what the ninth chapter of John is teaching? Will you determine who was speaking in verse 31, and for what purpose? Was he, or was he not talking about prayer in general? And will you reflect upon whether his reference to sinners can be honestly and fairly defined as "everyone who is not a member of the Church of Christ?"

     In John, chapter nine, we are told of our kind and loving Savior restoring sight to a man who had been born blind. Some of the Pharisees were upset, as usual, that good had been done on the Sabbath day, and they declared concerning Jesus, "'This man is not of God, because he keepeth not the Sabbath day.' Others said, 'How can a man that is a sinner do such miracles?' And there was a division among them" (verse 16).

     Some of the Jews simply could not believe that such an unheard-of miracle could have happened. They suspected a hoax and began an investigation in which they questioned the parents of the man

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reportedly healed. The couple verified that their son had indeed been blind from birth and could now see, but because they were afraid of being put out of the synagogue (verse 22), they were careful not to testify of any personal knowledge of Christ's power. They referred the Jews back to their son to learn how and by whom the miracle had come about.

     The Jews challenged him, "Give God the praise; we know that this man (Christ) is a sinner" (verse 24). Their definition of Christ as a sinner here is apparently based upon the previous assertion that he had broken the Sabbath by healing on that day (verse 16). They reviled the man for his faith in Christ, conveniently dismissing the Savior in their own minds, "as for this fellow (Jesus), we know not from whence he is" (verse 29). The man answered them with a confession of faith which resulted in his excommunication from the synagogue.

     "Why herein is a marvelous thing, that ye know not from whence he is, and yet he hath opened mine eyes. Now we know that God heareth not sinners; but if any man be a worshiper of God, and doeth his will, him he heareth. Since the world began was it not heard that any man opened the eyes of one that was born blind. If this man were not of God, he could do nothing."

     A healed and thankful man is testifying in verse 31 that if Jesus were indeed a "sinner" as the Jews claimed, he would not have been used as a channel for God's healing power. I fear that too many of my brethren, to prove a point, have overemphasized, overworked and overextended this simple passage. This verse was not spoken by Jesus or the apostles to serve us as a teaching about prayer. It was simply spoken by a very thankful man convinced that Jesus, his healer, was not a sinner but a man of God.

     Does the term "sinner" in the above passage refer to "the alien sinner"--the definitive phrase we commonly use to refer to one who has not washed away his sins in baptism? If we try to force this definition of "sinner" into the passage, are we not again bending and stretching scripture to fit our preconceived notion? Does God only pay heed to those who have fully obeyed him?

     Baptism, to be sure, is one of God's commands. One who submits to this act of obedience has a very special relationship with God. He can call upon God as his "Father" in a new and wonderful sense. But is baptism--necessary as it is for salvation--anywhere taught in the New Testament as a prerequisite to any and all communication with God?

     A human father is certainly much more attentive to the petitions of his own children than to those of other youngsters in the neighborhood. But does this mean his love is so meager and limited he will not give his neighbor's child "the time of day?" If he has any love or compassion in his heart and sees any child in need, will he not do what he can? "If ye, then, being evil, know how to give good gifts to your children, how much more shall your Father which is in heaven give good things to them that ask him" (Matthew 7:11).

     God is not willing that any should perish (2 Peter 3:9). Jesus gave his life on the cross for all men while all were yet sinners (Romans 5:8). Let us not limit God. God is love. Surely my loving Father who takes note of each falling sparrow will hear any man who seeks him and his love and guidance.

(Lila Newsom may be addressed at 1312 Stout Road, Hixson, Tenn. 37343).